I have been weighed in the balance and found non wanting
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1 comment:
Thanks anonymojus for trying to help me out with "Read wilfully as knowingly. In other words, no specific intent is required." I still don't get it. To knowingly say something false must imply the intent to deceive. Also, in context, it is obvious that the aim of the deceit is to get health insurance.
The only way to make sense of it is if California requires Blue Cross to prove that clients know that health insurance can be denied if they have a pre-existing medical condition. Everyone knows that, but it is usually impossible to prove that someone knows that. This would be crazy (and explain the 90 out of 90 result). I don't believe this is what is going on, but it is the only interpretation I can come up with which is not nonsense.
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